Was Israel's war of independence an act of aggression, and did Israel create the Arab refugee problem?antecendents of the war of indepence

I know this is a difficult question, but I would like to point out a few facts.  All of the area of Palestine had fallen into the territory of the Ottoman Empire until its collapse at the end of World War I when the territory that is now modern day Israel became a part of British mandate of Palestine.  Jordan, Syria, and Lebanon were also created as European Mandates at this time.  At the end of World War II the United Nations divided the Palestinian mandate between the Jews and the Arabs.  The angry Arab nations refused to recognize Israel and invaded in 1948.  Jordan, Syria and Lebanon also became independent nations at that time.  None of them had been independent nations since medieval times or earlier.   

From these facts, I do not believe the Israeli war for Independence was an agression.  They were the ones invaded, not invading.  Jews had lived in the area as settlers since the 19th century and had made great improvements to the land.  The horrors of World War II inspired the United Nations to give them a homeland in this land.  Arab inhabitants of the land were never told they had to leave and as pointed out earlier, were offered a home in Jordan so they did not have to become refugees. 

My information comes from Jerry Speilvogel: Western Civilization. Fifth edition; Wadworth/Thomas Learning, 2003, 811-813.