Great question!There are several reasons for this. One is simple. It aligns with period narrative structures. There are all of these testimonies in novels about how overtly, even obviously, fictional actions are real and true; to surpass that, you need to exaggerate. A second reason is the goal of the gothic. It is the dark side of a rational age, and so embraces all forms of excess. Exaggerating fictionality is one form of excess. A third is license. That is to say, if something is openly fictional, and realism is no longer the goal, then phenomena can be enjoyed for their own sake. A fourth is mood and its effect on judgment; such an approach makes it difficult to judge reality, and so to disprove or dismiss the contents of the gothic.
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
In Act III, scene 2, why may the establishment of Claudius's guilt be considered the crisis of the revenge plot?
The crisis of a drama usually proceeds and leads to the climax. In Shakespeare's Hamlet , the proof that Claudius is guilty...
-
Montag recognizes himself in Clarisse's eyes, indicating that there is a reflection of himself in her. Although he doesn't fully re...
-
Jem and Scout's visit to First Purchase African M.E. Church is significant for many reasons. First, the children experience racism for t...
-
The Nazis used hunger, fear, and violence to indoctrinate the prisoners into camp. The Nazis broke the prisoners down to their most basic an...
No comments:
Post a Comment