Thursday, December 11, 2014

Why did Abraham Lincoln issue the Emancipation Proclamation?

To the claim that the emancipation proclamation freed slaves in the north and NOT the south:


"That on the first day of January, in the year of our Lord one thousand eight hundred and sixty-three, all persons held as slaves within any State or designated part of a State, the people whereof shall then be in rebellion against the United States, shall be then, thenceforward, and forever free."


Notice the part that says ". . . the people whereof shall then be in rebellion against the United States"


This is one of the first sentences of the Emancipation Proclamation. It did NOT free slaves in the North; in fact, it specifically abstained from doing so in order to keep the border states who still had slaves loyal to the union in the time of war.


Just wanted to clear up that misunderstanding for anyone who might happen upon this page and get the wrong idea.

No comments:

Post a Comment

In Act III, scene 2, why may the establishment of Claudius's guilt be considered the crisis of the revenge plot?

The crisis of a drama usually proceeds and leads to the climax.  In Shakespeare's Hamlet , the proof that Claudius is guilty...